MCQS 132 NO: PAPER II – PRINCIPLES & PRACTICES OF BANKING | MODULE A: GENERAL BANKING OPERATIONS
PAPER II – PRINCIPLES & PRACTICES OF BANKING | MODULE A: GENERAL BANKING OPERATIONS MCQs
1. Banker-Customer Relationship
Q1: What is the relationship between a banker and a customer?
- A) Trustee and Beneficiary
- B) Debtor and Creditor
- C) Bailee and Bailor
- D) Agent and Principal
Answer: B) Debtor and Creditor
Q2: In which of the following relationships is the banker obligated to maintain confidentiality?
- A) Banker and Customer
- B) Employer and Employee
- C) Agent and Principal
- D) Bailee and Bailor
Answer: A) Banker and Customer
2. Requirements to be Called a Bank
Q3: Which of the following is a basic requirement for an institution to be recognized as a bank?
- A) It must provide loans
- B) It must be registered under the Banking Regulation Act, 1949
- C) It must be a member of the RBI
- D) It must have a national presence
Answer: B) It must be registered under the Banking Regulation Act, 1949
3. AML-KYC Guidelines
Q4: What is the purpose of the Know Your Customer (KYC) guidelines in banking?
- A) To maintain customer privacy
- B) To prevent money laundering and financing of terrorism
- C) To promote digital banking
- D) To encourage foreign investments
Answer: B) To prevent money laundering and financing of terrorism
Q5: Which of the following is a document that a bank can accept for KYC verification?
- A) Voter ID
- B) Passport
- C) Aadhaar card
- D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
4. Money Laundering & Financing of Terrorism Risks
Q6: Which of the following is a major risk under the AML framework?
- A) Tax evasion
- B) Illegal funding of terrorist activities
- C) Currency manipulation
- D) None of the above
Answer: B) Illegal funding of terrorist activities
5. Operational Aspects of KYC
Q7: What does the Central KYC Records Registry (CKYCR) do?
- A) It stores the KYC information of individuals
- B) It monitors customer accounts
- C) It regulates foreign exchange transactions
- D) It maintains account balances
Answer: A) It stores the KYC information of individuals
6. Foreign Exchange Remittance Facilities for Individuals
Q8: Which remittance scheme allows for the transfer of money between India and Nepal?
- A) Indo - Nepal Remittance Scheme
- B) Indo - Sri Lanka Remittance Scheme
- C) Indo - Pakistan Remittance Scheme
- D) Indo - Bangladesh Remittance Scheme
Answer: A) Indo - Nepal Remittance Scheme
7. Cash Management Services and Its Importance
Q9: What is one of the key services provided under Cash Management Services (CMS)?
- A) Payment Processing
- B) Loan Disbursement
- C) Forex Management
- D) Insurance
Answer: A) Payment Processing
8. Financial Inclusion & Financial Literacy
Q10: Which initiative has been introduced to promote financial inclusion in rural areas?
- A) RSETI (Rural Self Employment Training Institutes)
- B) NABARD
- C) PMGDISHA
- D) PMAY
Answer: A) RSETI (Rural Self Employment Training Institutes)
9. The Consumer Protection Act, 2019
Q11: Under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, what is the purpose of the Central Consumer Protection Authority?
- A) To settle customer disputes
- B) To regulate unfair trade practices
- C) To monitor consumer complaints
- D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
10. The Right to Information Act, 2005
Q12: Under the Right to Information Act, who is responsible for disposing of a request for information?
- A) Public Information Officer (PIO)
- B) Central Information Commission (CIC)
- C) State Information Commission (SIC)
- D) Information Commissioner
Answer: A) Public Information Officer (PIO)
11. Payment and Collection of Cheques and Other Negotiable Instruments
Q13: Which section of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, deals with the duties of a collecting bank?
- A) Section 10
- B) Section 31
- C) Section 129
- D) Section 148
Answer: B) Section 31
Q14: What is the primary responsibility of the paying bank under the Negotiable Instruments Act?
- A) Ensuring the instrument is signed by the account holder
- B) Ensuring the instrument is in proper form and meets legal requirements
- C) Verifying the endorser's identity
- D) None of the above
Answer: B) Ensuring the instrument is in proper form and meets legal requirements
12. Responsibility of Paying Bank
Q15: What happens if a paying bank makes a payment on a cheque with a forged signature?
- A) The payment is considered valid
- B) The payment is considered void
- C) The payment is only valid if the account holder authorizes it
- D) The bank is liable for the loss
Answer: D) The bank is liable for the loss
Q16: Under which circumstances can a paying bank seek protection for making a payment on a cheque?
- A) If the payment is made in good faith
- B) If the payment is made under a legal order
- C) If the cheque is post-dated
- D) If the customer has been notified of the payment
Answer: A) If the payment is made in good faith
13. Ancillary Services
Q17: What is a key feature of Mobile Banking in India?
- A) It is only available for checking account balances
- B) It enables fund transfers and bill payments
- C) It can only be used in rural areas
- D) It is used exclusively for loan applications
Answer: B) It enables fund transfers and bill payments
Q18: Which of the following is NOT part of the National Electronic Funds Transfer (NEFT) system?
- A) It is a real-time settlement system
- B) It allows for online banking payments
- C) It allows for interbank transfers
- D) It is a secure electronic money transfer system
Answer: A) It is a real-time settlement system
14. Financial Inclusion & Financial Literacy
Q19: Which technology has played a crucial role in promoting financial inclusion in India?
- A) Biometric Authentication
- B) Mobile Banking
- C) Internet Banking
- D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
Q20: Which of the following programs aims at improving financial literacy in India?
- A) Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana
- B) Financial Literacy Week (FLW)
- C) Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana
- D) Atal Pension Yojana
Answer: B) Financial Literacy Week (FLW)
15. Customer Service in Banks
Q21: What is a primary feature of the ATM operations policy in banks?
- A) ATM withdrawals are free
- B) Banks are responsible for monitoring ATM security
- C) ATM transactions can only be conducted during business hours
- D) Customers can make unlimited transactions without any charges
Answer: B) Banks are responsible for monitoring ATM security
Q22: What does the Banking Codes and Standards Board of India (BCSBI) primarily aim to do?
- A) Standardize banking charges
- B) Set out a code of conduct for banking services
- C) Regulate the financial inclusion programs
- D) Ensure compliance with global banking norms
Answer: B) Set out a code of conduct for banking services
16. Duties & Rights of a Banker and Customer Rights
Q23: What duty does a banker have concerning the customer's account information?
- A) Duty of disclosure
- B) Duty of confidentiality
- C) Duty of compliance
- D) Duty of ownership
Answer: B) Duty of confidentiality
Q24: Which of the following is NOT a right of a customer under banking norms?
- A) Right to seek grievance redressal
- B) Right to transfer their accounts to any bank
- C) Right to demand higher interest rates
- D) Right to access the bank's policies
Answer: C) Right to demand higher interest rates
17. Grievance Redressal & RBI Integrated Ombudsman Scheme 2021
Q25: What is the primary role of the RBI Integrated Ombudsman Scheme?
- A) To resolve banking disputes related to loan defaults
- B) To address customer complaints regarding bank services
- C) To regulate foreign exchange transactions
- D) To ensure compliance with KYC norms
Answer: B) To address customer complaints regarding bank services
Q26: What must a customer do before approaching the RBI Ombudsman?
- A) Wait for at least 30 days after submitting the complaint to the bank
- B) Attempt to resolve the issue with the bank’s customer service team
- C) File a police report
- D) None of the above
Answer: B) Attempt to resolve the issue with the bank’s customer service team
18. The Consumer Protection Act, 2019
Q27: Under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, what is the maximum period within which a complaint can be filed with the District Commission?
- A) 1 year
- B) 2 years
- C) 3 years
- D) 5 years
Answer: B) 2 years
Q28: What is the role of the Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA) under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019?
- A) To settle consumer disputes
- B) To impose penalties on erring businesses
- C) To regulate unfair trade practices and misleading advertisements
- D) To monitor the prices of goods and services
Answer: C) To regulate unfair trade practices and misleading advertisements
19. The Right to Information Act, 2005
Q29: Which of the following is exempt from providing information under the Right to Information Act?
- A) Information affecting the sovereignty of India
- B) Information related to commercial secrets
- C) Personal information of individuals, unless it is in public interest
- D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
Q30: Under the Right to Information Act, who has the authority to impose a penalty for non-compliance by a public authority?
- A) Information Commissioner
- B) Public Information Officer (PIO)
- C) Chief Information Officer
- D) Central Information Commission
Answer: A) Information Commissioner
20. Operational Aspects of NRI Business
Q31: Which type of account can be opened by Non-Resident Indians (NRIs) in India to park their foreign income?
- A) NRO (Non-Resident Ordinary) Account
- B) NRE (Non-Resident External) Account
- C) FCNR (Foreign Currency Non-Resident) Account
- D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
Q32: What is the main feature of the NRE (Non-Resident External) Account?
- A) The account can only hold Indian Rupees
- B) The account is used for converting foreign currency into Indian Rupees
- C) It allows repatriation of funds to the NRI's home country
- D) It is for depositing income earned in India
Answer: C) It allows repatriation of funds to the NRI's home country
21. Foreign Exchange Remittance Facilities for Individuals
Q33: Which of the following is a permissible outward remittance under the FEMA guidelines?
- A) Payment for medical treatment abroad
- B) Education expenses abroad
- C) Investment in foreign securities
- D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
Q34: Which entity regulates the foreign exchange market in India?
- A) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
- B) Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
- C) Ministry of Finance
- D) Ministry of External Affairs
Answer: A) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
22. Cash Management Services and Its Importance
Q35: What is the key objective of Cash Management Services (CMS) for businesses?
- A) To optimize liquidity and reduce operational costs
- B) To manage investment portfolios
- C) To provide loans to businesses
- D) To assist in foreign exchange transactions
Answer: A) To optimize liquidity and reduce operational costs
Q36: Which of the following is a component of Cash Management Services (CMS)?
- A) Payment collections
- B) Fund transfers
- C) Disbursement services
- D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
23. Payment and Collection of Cheques and Other Negotiable Instruments
Q37: Under the Negotiable Instruments Act, which section deals with the payment in due course by the paying bank?
- A) Section 10
- B) Section 31
- C) Section 128
- D) Section 38
Answer: B) Section 31
Q38: If a cheque is dishonoured, who is responsible for compensating the payee?
- A) The drawer of the cheque
- B) The drawee bank
- C) The payee
- D) The collecting bank
Answer: A) The drawer of the cheque
24. Secrecy Obligations
Q39: What is the primary objective of a bank's duty of secrecy?
- A) To prevent fraudulent transactions
- B) To maintain the confidentiality of the customer's financial information
- C) To protect the bank from legal liabilities
- D) To ensure proper accounting
Answer: B) To maintain the confidentiality of the customer's financial information
Q40: Under what condition can a bank disclose a customer’s financial information without violating the duty of secrecy?
- A) With the customer’s consent
- B) When required by law or under a court order
- C) For internal audits or investigations
- D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
25. Foreign Currency Accounts for Residents and Other Aspects
Q41: Which of the following is a permissible foreign currency account for residents in India?
- A) FCNR (Foreign Currency Non-Resident) Account
- B) Resident Foreign Currency (RFC) Account
- C) NRE (Non-Resident External) Account
- D) None of the above
Answer: B) Resident Foreign Currency (RFC) Account
Q42: What is the purpose of the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act, 2010?
- A) To regulate foreign exchange transactions
- B) To monitor foreign contributions to non-profit organizations
- C) To control outward remittance
- D) To oversee foreign investments in Indian markets
Answer: B) To monitor foreign contributions to non-profit organizations
26. Financial Inclusion & Financial Literacy
Q43: What is the main objective of financial inclusion in India?
- A) To provide banking services to all citizens
- B) To increase foreign direct investment in India
- C) To regulate the stock market
- D) To promote digital payments in rural areas
Answer: A) To provide banking services to all citizens
Q44: Which government initiative is aimed at improving financial literacy and providing banking access to all households?
- A) Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY)
- B) Financial Literacy Week (FLW)
- C) Atal Pension Yojana (APY)
- D) Bharat Interface for Money (BHIM) App
Answer: A) Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY)
27. Customer Service in Banks
Q45: What is a bank’s obligation when a customer’s ATM card is lost or stolen?
- A) To immediately block the card and issue a new one
- B) To charge the customer a replacement fee
- C) To investigate and report the loss to law enforcement
- D) To transfer all funds to a new account
Answer: A) To immediately block the card and issue a new one
Q46: What is the role of a bank in ensuring ATM security?
- A) To monitor ATMs for fraudulent activities
- B) To ensure that ATMs are stocked with cash
- C) To maintain the physical security of the ATM machines
- D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
28. Duties & Rights of a Banker and Customer Rights
Q47: Which of the following is a banker’s right in relation to a customer’s account?
- A) Right to dishonor a cheque
- B) Right to charge fees for services
- C) Right to access the customer’s personal information without consent
- D) Right to disclose account details to third parties
Answer: B) Right to charge fees for services
Q48: What is the duty of a banker regarding the safety of the customer's deposits?
- A) To ensure that the deposits are secure and protected from fraud
- B) To invest customer deposits in high-risk assets
- C) To ensure that deposits earn the highest interest rates
- D) To provide personal loans to customers from deposit funds
Answer: A) To ensure that the deposits are secure and protected from fraud
29. Grievance Redressal & RBI Integrated Ombudsman Scheme 2021
Q49: What is the purpose of the RBI Integrated Ombudsman Scheme?
- A) To resolve disputes between banks and their customers
- B) To regulate foreign exchange operations
- C) To monitor the interest rates on loans
- D) To impose penalties on erring banks
Answer: A) To resolve disputes between banks and their customers
Q50: How can a customer approach the RBI Ombudsman if their complaint is unresolved by the bank?
- A) By writing directly to the bank’s head office
- B) By filing a complaint on the RBI’s official portal
- C) By seeking legal action in court
- D) By filing an appeal with the District Consumer Court
Answer: B) By filing a complaint on the RBI’s official portal
30. The Consumer Protection Act, 2019
Q51: Who can file a complaint under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019?
- A) Any consumer
- B) Only registered consumer organizations
- C) Only government authorities
- D) Only individual consumers with proof of purchase
Answer: A) Any consumer
Q52: Under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, what is the maximum penalty for unfair trade practices?
- A) Rs. 1 lakh
- B) Rs. 10 lakh
- C) Rs. 50 lakh
- D) Rs. 1 crore
Answer: C) Rs. 50 lakh
31. The Right to Information Act, 2005
Q53: Under the Right to Information Act, 2005, what is the time limit for disposing of an RTI application?
- A) 30 days
- B) 45 days
- C) 60 days
- D) 90 days
Answer: A) 30 days
Q54: Which of the following is a public authority under the Right to Information Act, 2005?
- A) Central Government
- B) State Government
- D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
32. Opening Accounts of Various Types of Customers
Q55: What is the key requirement when opening an account for a minor under the Banking Regulations?
- A) The minor must be at least 18 years old
- B) A guardian must open the account on behalf of the minor
- C) The minor must provide a photo ID proof
- D) Only a minor’s parent can open the account
Answer: B) A guardian must open the account on behalf of the minor
Q56: What document is required to open a current account for a legal entity?
- A) Proof of address
- B) Legal Entity Identifier (LEI)
- C) Company’s Memorandum and Articles of Association
- D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
33. Operational Aspects of Deposit Accounts
Q57: Which of the following is a prohibited activity for a deposit account holder?
- A) Making deposits at an ATM
- B) Withdrawing funds without sufficient balance
- C) Adding a nominee to the account
- D) Closing the account after 3 years
Answer: B) Withdrawing funds without sufficient balance
Q58: What is the consequence of an account being classified as “inoperative”?
- A) The account is automatically closed
- B) The account continues to accrue interest
- C) The account will not be allowed for withdrawals or transactions
- D) The account holder will be charged a penalty fee
Answer: C) The account will not be allowed for withdrawals or transactions
34. Foreign Exchange Remittance Facilities for Individuals
Q59: Which of the following is a permissible inward remittance under FEMA guidelines?
- A) Payments for educational purposes
- B) Payments from family members for personal expenses
- C) Payments for importing goods into India
- D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
Q60: Under the Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA), what is the maximum amount that can be remitted for personal use to foreign countries?
- A) USD 10,000 per year
- B) USD 250,000 per year
- C) USD 100,000 per year
- D) USD 500,000 per year
Answer: B) USD 250,000 per year
35. Cash Management Services and Its Importance
Q61: Which of the following is not considered a Cash Management Service (CMS)?
- A) Fund transfer services
- B) ATM cash replenishment services
- C) Payroll management services
- D) Personal loan facilities
Answer: D) Personal loan facilities
Q62: What is the main benefit of utilizing CMS for a business?
- A) Reduction in tax liabilities
- B) Efficient cash flow management
- C) Simplified investment tracking
- D) High-interest rates on deposits
Answer: B) Efficient cash flow management
36. Payment and Collection of Cheques and Other Negotiable Instruments
Q63: What is the effect of crossing a cheque?
- A) The cheque can only be deposited in the payee’s account
- B) The cheque is invalid for any transaction
- C) The cheque must be presented in person at the bank’s counter
- D) The cheque can be endorsed and transferred to another person
Answer: A) The cheque can only be deposited in the payee’s account
Q64: What is the time limit for presenting a cheque for payment under the Negotiable Instruments Act?
- A) 6 months
- B) 3 months
- C) 1 year
- D) 2 years
Answer: A) 6 months
37. Responsibility of Paying Bank
Q65: What is the responsibility of a paying bank in case of a forged cheque?
- A) The paying bank is not responsible
- B) The paying bank is liable to compensate the customer
- C) The paying bank should report the forgery to the police
- D) The paying bank should return the cheque to the drawer
Answer: B) The paying bank is liable to compensate the customer
Q66: In which of the following scenarios can a paying bank refuse to make payment on a cheque?
- A) The signature of the drawer is forged
- B) The account has insufficient funds
- D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
38. Statutory Protection to Collecting Bank, Duties of the Collecting Bank
Q67: What is the primary duty of the collecting bank in relation to a cheque?
- A) To ensure the authenticity of the cheque
- B) To honor the cheque and make payment to the payee
- C) To collect the cheque on behalf of the drawer
- D) To return the cheque if it is dishonoured
Answer: C) To collect the cheque on behalf of the drawer
Q68: When can a collecting bank be held liable for dishonouring a cheque?
- A) If the cheque is presented after the validity period
- B) If the bank has not properly authenticated the cheque
- C) If the bank accepts a post-dated cheque
- D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
39. Ancillary Services
Q69: Which of the following is not a form of electronic payment system in India?
- A) Real Time Gross Settlement (RTGS)
- B) National Electronic Funds Transfer (NEFT)
- C) Electronic Benefit Transfer (EBT)
- D) Cash on Delivery (COD)
Answer: D) Cash on Delivery (COD)
Q70: Which of the following is a feature of Mobile Banking in India?
- A) Access to branch-only services
- B) Limited transaction types
- C) Real-time transaction updates and fund transfers
- D) Only available for large corporate accounts
Answer: C) Real-time transaction updates and fund transfers
40. Financial Inclusion & Financial Literacy
Q71: What is one of the key elements of financial inclusion in India?
- A) Ensuring that all citizens have access to bank loans
- B) Extending banking services to underserved and unbanked populations
- C) Offering high-interest savings accounts to all customers
- D) Restricting financial products to only government employees
Answer: B) Extending banking services to underserved and unbanked populations
Q72: What initiative is aimed at increasing financial literacy in rural India?
- A) National Financial Literacy Mission (NFLM)
- B) Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY)
- C) Financial Literacy Week (FLW)
- D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
41. Customer Service in Banks
Q73: Which of the following is considered a part of good customer service at a bank?
- A) Providing clear information about products and services
- B) Ensuring prompt resolution of complaints
- C) Offering personalized financial advice
- D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
Q74: What should a bank do if a customer complains about unauthorized transactions on their account?
- A) Ignore the complaint if it’s a small amount
- B) Immediately block the account and investigate the issue
- C) Ask the customer to report the incident to the police
- D) Charge a fee for the investigation
Answer: B) Immediately block the account and investigate the issue
42. Grievance Redressal & RBI Integrated Ombudsman Scheme 2021
Q75: Under the RBI Integrated Ombudsman Scheme, what is the maximum time frame for resolving a complaint?
- A) 15 days
- B) 30 days
- C) 45 days
- D) 60 days
Answer: B) 30 days
Q76: What can a customer do if the complaint filed with the bank is not resolved under the RBI Ombudsman Scheme?
- A) File a complaint in the Consumer Forum
- B) Approach the High Court
- C) Escalate the complaint to the Banking Codes and Standards Board of India (BCSBI)
- D) Escalate the complaint to the RBI Ombudsman
Answer: D) Escalate the complaint to the RBI Ombudsman
43. The Consumer Protection Act, 2019
Q77: Which of the following is a new feature introduced in the Consumer Protection Act, 2019?
- A) Establishment of the Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA)
- B) Introduction of Online Mediation
- C) Enhanced penalties for misleading advertisements
- D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
Q78: What is the maximum time limit for filing a complaint in the District Consumer Disputes Redressal Forum?
- A) 2 years from the date of cause of action
- B) 3 years from the date of cause of action
- C) 5 years from the date of cause of action
- D) 1 year from the date of the issue
Answer: A) 2 years from the date of cause of action
44. The Right to Information Act, 2005
Q79: What is the maximum time period for a public authority to respond to an RTI application?
- A) 30 days
- B) 45 days
- C) 60 days
- D) 90 days
Answer: A) 30 days
Q80: Which of the following is considered exempt under the Right to Information Act, 2005?
- A) Information related to the privacy of individuals
- B) Information on national security
- C) Information covered by legal privilege
- D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
45. Banker-Customer Relationship
Q81: Which of the following is true regarding the banker-customer relationship?
- A) A bank must act in the best interest of its customers
- B) The relationship is primarily based on trust
- C) The bank has the right to refuse service under certain conditions
- D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
Q82: In a banker-customer relationship, which of the following is a duty of the bank?
- A) To ensure the confidentiality of the customer’s information
- B) To act with reasonable care in handling customer transactions
- D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
46. AML-KYC Guidelines
Q83: What is the main purpose of Anti-Money Laundering (AML) regulations?
- A) To identify and prevent financial crimes
- B) To increase profitability for banks
- C) To reduce the risk of foreign currency fluctuation
- D) To promote cross-border trade
Answer: A) To identify and prevent financial crimes
Q84: What does the "Know Your Customer" (KYC) process primarily aim to do?
- A) Verify the identity of customers
- B) Detect and prevent financial crimes
- C) Ensure that customers have the necessary funds
- D) Both A and B
Answer: D) Both A and B
47. Money Laundering & Financing of Terrorism Risks
Q85: Which of the following is considered a risk factor in money laundering?
- A) Large, irregular cash deposits
- B) Transactions with countries known for lax AML regulations
- D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
Q86: What is the role of the Financial Action Task Force (FATF) in combating money laundering?
- A) It provides guidelines to prevent money laundering
- B) It monitors and evaluates countries' AML frameworks
- C) It issues blacklists of countries with weak AML regulations
- D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
48. Foreign Exchange Remittance Facilities for Individuals
Q87: What is the primary objective of the Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA)?
- A) To regulate the foreign exchange market
- B) To facilitate foreign investments
- C) To manage foreign exchange transactions in India
- D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
Q88: Which of the following is true regarding inward remittances under FEMA?
- A) They are only allowed for specific purposes like education and medical treatment
- B) They must be transferred through authorized dealers only
- C) They can be received in both INR and foreign currency
- D) Both B and C
Answer: D) Both B and C
49. Operational Aspects of NRI Business
Q89: Which of the following accounts is a Non-Resident Indian (NRI) allowed to open in India?
- A) Non-Resident External (NRE) Account
- B) Non-Resident Ordinary (NRO) Account
- C) Foreign Currency Non-Resident (FCNR) Account
- D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
Q90: What is the main purpose of a Non-Resident External (NRE) account?
- A) To manage foreign income in India
- B) To repatriate income earned abroad to India
- C) To hold and invest in Indian assets
- D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
50. Foreign Currency Accounts for Residents and Other Aspects
Q91: Under which circumstances can a resident individual open a foreign currency account in India?
- A) Only for purposes related to travel
- B) Only for trading in foreign currencies
- C) Only for making investments in foreign countries
- D) As permitted by the Reserve Bank of India
Answer: D) As permitted by the Reserve Bank of India
Q92: Which of the following is true about foreign currency accounts held outside India by residents?
- A) Indian residents are permitted to hold accounts in foreign currency outside India
- B) Indian residents must obtain prior approval from the RBI to open such accounts
- C) They are only permitted for foreign nationals
- D) Indian residents can hold them without any restrictions
Answer: B) Indian residents must obtain prior approval from the RBI to open such accounts
51. Cash Management Services and Its Importance
Q93: What is the primary benefit of Cash Management Services (CMS) for businesses?
- A) Increased revenue from interest
- B) Improved management of cash flow and liquidity
- C) Reduction in banking fees
- D) None of the above
Answer: B) Improved management of cash flow and liquidity
Q94: Which of the following is typically offered by Cash Management Services?
- A) Collection and payment services
- B) Reconciliation and reporting of transactions
- C) Cash forecasting and liquidity management
- D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
52. Payment and Collection of Cheques and Other Negotiable Instruments
Q95: According to the Negotiable Instruments Act, what is the primary condition for the payment of a cheque?
- A) The cheque must be signed by the drawer
- B) The cheque must be presented within the validity period
- C) The cheque must have sufficient funds in the account
- D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
Q96: In the case of a dishonoured cheque, who is liable for the penalty?
- A) The drawer
- B) The payee
- C) The collecting bank
- D) The endorsers
Answer: A) The drawer
53. Responsibility of Paying Bank
Q97: What is the responsibility of a paying bank when a cheque is presented for payment?
- A) To verify the authenticity of the cheque
- B) To ensure that there are sufficient funds in the drawer’s account
- D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
Q98: If a bank pays a cheque with a forged signature, which of the following is true?
- A) The bank is liable to pay the amount
- B) The bank is not liable and may charge the customer
- C) The bank has the right to refuse payment
- D) None of the above
Answer: B) The bank is not liable and may charge the customer
54. Statutory Protection to Collecting Bank, Duties of the Collecting Bank
Q99: What is the statutory protection granted to a collecting bank under the Negotiable Instruments Act?
- A) Protection against claims for the dishonour of cheques
- B) Protection against fraudulent endorsements
- C) Protection for collecting the cheque in good faith
- D) None of the above
Answer: C) Protection for collecting the cheque in good faith
Q100: Which of the following is a duty of a collecting bank when collecting a cheque?
- A) To ensure that the endorsement is valid
- B) To ensure the cheque is properly dated
- C) To examine the cheque for any signs of alteration
- D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
55. Ancillary Services
Q101: Which of the following services is included under ancillary banking services?
- A) Demand Drafts (DD)
- B) Telegraphic Transfer (TT)
- C) Real-Time Gross Settlement (RTGS)
- D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
Q102: What is the key advantage of using Electronic Funds Transfer (EFT) systems like NEFT and RTGS?
- A) It allows faster processing of payments
- B) It ensures security of financial transactions
- C) It reduces the need for physical banking visits
- D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
56. Financial Inclusion & Financial Literacy
Q103: Which of the following is the goal of financial inclusion in the banking sector?
- A) To ensure that everyone has access to financial products and services
- B) To limit access to financial services to the upper class
- C) To promote high-interest savings accounts
- D) To reduce the number of bank branches
Answer: A) To ensure that everyone has access to financial products and services
Q104: What role does financial literacy play in promoting financial inclusion?
- A) It helps individuals make informed decisions about banking and investments
- B) It improves the ability to manage personal finances
- C) It aids in understanding the risks associated with financial products
- D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
57. Customer Service in Banks
Q105: Which of the following is an example of poor customer service in a bank?
- A) Timely response to customer queries
- B) Offering products suited to customer needs
- C) Ignoring customer complaints
- D) Providing clear and transparent information
Answer: C) Ignoring customer complaints
Q106: What is the role of a bank in managing customer complaints?
- A) To address complaints promptly and fairly
- B) To refer all complaints to higher authorities
- C) To avoid handling complaints and leave them unresolved
- D) To charge fees for handling complaints
Answer: A) To address complaints promptly and fairly
58. Grievance Redressal & RBI Integrated Ombudsman Scheme 2021
Q107: Under the RBI Integrated Ombudsman Scheme, what happens if a bank fails to resolve a customer’s complaint?
- A) The customer can approach the Ombudsman for further assistance
- B) The customer is entitled to a refund of all banking fees
- C) The customer is asked to submit the complaint to the Reserve Bank of India directly
- D) The customer has to wait for another 60 days for resolution
Answer: A) The customer can approach the Ombudsman for further assistance
Q108: What is the maximum compensation a customer can receive under the RBI Ombudsman Scheme for non-fulfillment of customer service commitments?
- A) Rs. 5 lakhs
- B) Rs. 10 lakhs
- C) Rs. 20 lakhs
- D) Rs. 50 lakhs
Answer: B) Rs. 10 lakhs
59. The Consumer Protection Act, 2019
Q109: Which of the following is true about the Consumer Protection Act, 2019?
- A) It provides for the establishment of consumer redressal forums
- B) It empowers the Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA) to act against unfair trade practices
- C) It includes provisions for resolving complaints related to e-commerce
- D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
Q110: Which of the following is a major provision under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019?
- A) Consumer disputes can be filed in consumer courts
- B) E-commerce businesses must adhere to consumer protection guidelines
- C) Mediation is now an integral part of dispute resolution
- D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
60. The Right to Information Act, 2005
Q111: Under the Right to Information (RTI) Act, who can file an application for seeking information?
- A) Any citizen of India
- B) Only government employees
- C) Only residents of a specific state
- D) Only legal professionals
Answer: A) Any citizen of India
Q112: How long does it take for a public authority to respond to an RTI application if the information concerns the life and liberty of a person?
- A) 30 days
- B) 45 days
- C) 10 days
- D) 60 days
Answer: C) 10 days
61. Banker-Customer Relationship
Q113: In a banker-customer relationship, which of the following is the bank’s duty?
- A) To honor the customer's cheque if the account is in order
- B) To act as a fiduciary of the customer’s funds
- C) To provide accurate information about products and services
- D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
Q114: What is the banker’s duty when a customer requests for withdrawal of funds from a joint account?
- A) The bank must ensure that the request is signed by all joint account holders
- B) The bank must honor the request if the balance is sufficient, without checking signatures
- C) The bank is not responsible for withdrawal requests in joint accounts
- D) The bank must refer the matter to the legal heirs
Answer: A) The bank must ensure that the request is signed by all joint account holders
62. AML-KYC Guidelines
Q115: Which of the following is required for a bank to comply with KYC norms?
- A) Verification of identity and address of the customer
- B) Ensuring that the customer is not involved in illegal activities
- C) Periodic updating of customer records
- D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
Q116: What is the consequence of not adhering to the AML-KYC regulations?
- A) The bank may face penalties and regulatory actions
- B) The customer’s account may be frozen
- C) The bank may lose its operating license
- D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
63. Banker as a Trustee
Q117: In a banker-trustee relationship, what is the primary responsibility of the banker?
- A) To act in the best interest of the trust beneficiaries
- B) To manage the funds as per the trust deed
- C) To avoid personal gain from the trust funds
- D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
Q118: What is a common example of a trustee relationship in banking?
- A) A bank managing an employee provident fund
- B) A bank acting as a custodian for securities
- C) A bank holding assets in a trust account
- D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
64. Bailee-Bailor Relationship
Q119: What is the primary duty of a bailee in the bailee-bailor relationship in banking?
- A) To return the goods or property to the bailor in the same condition
- B) To sell the goods for the bailor
- C) To transfer ownership of the goods to a third party
- D) To safeguard the goods until they are needed
Answer: A) To return the goods or property to the bailor in the same condition
Q120: If a customer deposits valuables in a bank's safe deposit locker, what is the nature of the relationship between the bank and the customer?
- A) Bailee and Bailor
- B) Trustee and Beneficiary
- C) Agent and Principal
- D) None of the above
Answer: A) Bailee and Bailor
65. Agent-Principal Relationship
Q121: In an agent-principal relationship, which of the following is true?
- A) The agent has the authority to act on behalf of the principal
- B) The agent must act in the best interest of the principal
- C) The agent is entitled to a commission for services rendered
- D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
Q122: A bank acting on behalf of a customer to execute a financial transaction is an example of which relationship?
- A) Bailee-Bailor
- B) Agent-Principal
- C) Trustee-Beneficiary
- D) None of the above
Answer: B) Agent-Principal
66. Lessor and Lessee
Q123: What is the role of a lessor in a lease agreement with a lessee?
- A) To transfer the ownership of property to the lessee
- B) To provide the lessee with the right to use the property for a specified period
- C) To manage the property and ensure it remains in good condition
- D) None of the above
Answer: B) To provide the lessee with the right to use the property for a specified period
Q124: Which of the following is an example of a lessor-lessee relationship in banking?
- A) A bank leasing a building to a business
- B) A bank lending money to a business
- C) A bank offering investment services to clients
- D) A bank acting as a trustee for a customer
Answer: A) A bank leasing a building to a business
67. Indemnifier and Indemnified
Q125: In an indemnity agreement, what is the role of the indemnifier?
- A) To compensate the indemnified party for any losses or damages
- B) To provide legal services to the indemnified party
- C) To act as a guarantor for the indemnified party
- D) None of the above
Answer: A) To compensate the indemnified party for any losses or damages
Q126: If a bank guarantees repayment of a loan on behalf of a customer, what is the bank’s role?
- A) Indemnifier
- B) Lessee
- C) Bailee
- D) Agent
Answer: A) Indemnifier
68. Different Deposit Products or Services
Q127: Which of the following is a type of deposit account offered by banks?
- A) Fixed Deposit (FD)
- B) Recurring Deposit (RD)
- D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
Q128: What is the main difference between a Fixed Deposit (FD) and a Savings Account?
- A) FD offers higher interest rates, and funds are locked for a specific period
- B) A savings account offers higher interest rates
- C) FDs are available for withdrawal at any time
- D) A savings account has no interest rate
Answer: A) FD offers higher interest rates, and funds are locked for a specific period
69. AML-KYC Framework in India
Q129: Which regulatory body oversees the implementation of Anti-Money Laundering (AML) and Know Your Customer (KYC) norms in India?
- A) Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
- B) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
- C) National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD)
- D) Ministry of Finance
Answer: B) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
Q130: According to AML-KYC guidelines, what is the primary purpose of customer identification?
- A) To detect and prevent money laundering activities
- B) To ensure the financial stability of the bank
- C) To collect personal data for marketing purposes
- D) None of the above
Answer: A) To detect and prevent money laundering activities
70. Reporting Obligations under FATCA/CRS
Q131: What does FATCA stand for?
- A) Financial Accounts Transparency and Compliance Act
- B) Foreign Account Tax Compliance Act
- C) Federal Account Transaction Compliance Act
- D) None of the above
Answer: B) Foreign Account Tax Compliance Act
Q132: Under FATCA/CRS, which of the following entities is required to report information on foreign accounts?
- A) Banks
- B) Financial Institutions
- C) Insurance Companies
- D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
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